SSC CGL 2016 - New Pattern for Tier-1, Tier-2 and Tier-3, Syllabus and Sample Questions

SSC- Combined Graduate Level (CGL) examination 2016 New Pattern

SSC CGL 2016 - New Pattern for Tier-1, Tier-2 and Tier-3, Syllabus and Sample Questions.





Exam overview

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has announced the new pattern for SSC CGL Exam 2016 along with a new revised syllabus.

The candidates are requested to refer to Para No.9, 9.1 and 9.2 (all related to scheme of examination) of the notice of CGLE, 2016, published on 13.02.2016 on the Commission’s website as well as on Employment news/Rozgar samachar.

In accordance with the same, the Commission has reserved the right to make changes in the scheme of examination such as conducting Tier – I and Tier – II examinations in computer based mode, treating Tier – I examination as only qualifying etc.

According to the new notification, the Commission has reduced the number of questions from 200 to 100 in Tier – I, which would continue to carry 200 marks.

The Commission has also decided to conduct Tier – I and Tier – II examinations in computer mode in place of OMR based examination mode. Tier – I examinations are scheduled to be held from 27th August, 2016.

The examination will be conducted in three tiers as mentioned below:

  • Tier I – Written examination (multiple choice objective type)
  • Tier II – Written examination (multiple choice objective type)
  • Tier III – Computer proficiency/skill test (wherever applicable)/ document verification.

SSC CGL 2016 Examination pattern

Tier – I pattern

The questions will be multiple choice objective type in CGL Tier – I exam, set both in Hindi and English languages in respect of Part A, B and C. This exam shall be common for all categories of post.


Vacancies

Tier I written exam



Part A

(General intelligence and reasoning)

Part B

(General awareness)

Part C

(Quantitative aptitude)

Part D (English comprehension)

Total marks

25 questions

25 questions

25 questions

25 questions

Criteria required for posts required to clear interview except Statistical Investigator Grade – II

50 marks – General intelligence and reasoning

50 marks – General awareness

50 marks – Quantitative aptitude

50 marks – English comprehension

200

Criteria for posts not required not to clear interview except Compiler

Same as above



Statistical Investigator Grade – II



Compiler

Time allowed: 75 minutes (100 minutes for VH and candidates suffering from Cerebral Palsy).



Tier – II pattern

The questions will be multiple choice objective type in CGL Tier – II and the examination will be conducted over a period of 2 days.


Part

Subject

Maximum marks/questions

Number of questions

Duration and timings for General candidates

Duration and timings for VH and Cerebral Palsy candidates

IV

General Studies (Finance and Economics)

200

To be notified later

2 hours

10 am to 12 noon

2 hours and 40 min

10 am to 12.40 pm




III

Statistics

200

100

2 hours

2 pm to 4 pm

2 hours and 40 min

2 pm to 4.40 pm

I

Quantitative Abilities

200

100

2 hours

10 am to 12 noon

2 hours and 40 min

10 am to 12.40 pm

II

English Language and Comprehension

200

200

2 hours

2 pm to 4 pm

2 hours and 40 min

2 pm to 4.40 pm



Important information:

  • Paper I & II are mandatory for all posts.
  • Paper III is only for candidates applying for the post of Statistical Investigator Grade II & Compiler.
  • Paper IV is only for the candidates applying for the post of Assistant Audit Officer.

Tier – III & IV patterns

Applicants qualifying in all the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible for being called for Tier – III, that is, Data Entry Skill Test/Proficiency Test/Document verification (as per requirement for the post applied).

There will be negative marking of .50 for each wrong answer in Tier – I. However, the negative marking in Tier – II will remain unchanged at .25 marks deducted for each wrong answer in Paper – II and .50 mark deductions  in Paper – I and Paper – III.

In addition to the above, Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has decided to introduce a Descriptive Paper of English/Hindi as Tier – III, which shall be bilingual. The candidates have the option to choose any one medium. The details of the same are provided hereunder:


Tier

Mode of examination

Scheme of examination

Marks

Time

III

Pen & paper mode

Descriptive Paper in English/Hindi (Essay writing/Letter writing/Application writing etc.

100

60 minutes



(80 minutes for VH and candidates suffering from Cerebral Palsy.)

IV

Data Entry Skill Test (DEST)/Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) (Wherever applicable)

Same as published in the examination notification.

Qualifying

Same as published in the examination notification.



The final merit list shall be prepared based on the overall performance in Tier – I, Tier – II, and Tier – III. However, it is mandatory for all the candidates to qualify in all three tiers separately. There shall be no sectional cut-off.

Verification of documents shall be conducted as per the provisions of the examination notification.

Now the SSC pattern has changed and you have a lots of confusion as this is completely the new pattern which you are going to experience for the first time so what we can expect and what to do now.



1. Start your preparation right now as this is going to be neck to neck fight. One big relief is that tier 1 is qualifying and there is no sectional cutoff.

2. As expected they will call around 150000 for tier 2 so our entire focus should be on tier 1 first and we will talk about descriptive and tier 2 latter.

3. So here is how is the pattern now

Quantitative Aptitude

1.Geometry 6Questions 12Minutes

2. Trigonometry 3Q 6M

3. Algebra 2Q 4M

4. Data Interpretation 3Q 6M

5. Time Speed and Distance 1Q 2M

6. Time and Work 2Q 4M

7. Percentage 2Q 4M

8. Allegation 1Q 2M

9. SI/CI/ Profit Loss 2Q 4M

10.Mensuration 2Q 4M

11. Number System 1Q 2M

Reasoning Ability

1.Coding Decoding 4Q 8M

2. Sequence Series 3Q 6M

3. Word Arrangement 1Q 2M

4. Statement Conclusion 2Q 4M

5. Missing Number 2Q 4M

6. Venn Diagram 1Q 2M

7. Mirror/Water 1Q 2M

8. Matrix 1Q 2M

9. Direction Sense 1Q 2M

10.Embedded Figure 1Q 2M

11. Analogy 3Q 6M

12.Classification 3Q 6M

13. Paper Cut 1Q 2M

14. Syllogism 1Q 2M

English

1. Reading Comprehension 4Q 8M

2.Synonyms Antonyms 4Q 8M

3.Idioms Phrase 3Q 6M

4.One word substitution 3Q 6M

5. Word Correct 1Q 2M

6. Fill in the blanks 4Q 8M

7. Sentence Correction 3Q 6M

8. Correct Grammar Use 3Q 6M

General Awareness

1. Economics 4Q 8M

2. Biology 5Q 10M

3. Physics 3Q 6M

4.Chemistry 2Q 6M

5. Geography 1Q 2M

6.History 3Q 6M

7. Political Science 3Q 6M

8. Current Affairs 2Q 4M

9. Miscellaneous 2Q 4M



So this is the overall exam pattern prepare according to that.

30 Questions are expected to be easy level

40 Questions are expected to be of Moderate Level

30 Questions are expected to be tough.



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Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims Morning Shift 1 on 2nd July 2016



In this article you will get All the Questions Asked in  SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016 Shift 1 Morning Exam with Answers and analysis good attempts, expected cut offs and more!

SBI PO 2016 Prelims has proceeded without a glitch. This year, SBI PO Prelims is scheduled to be held on three days (2nd July, 3rd July & 9th July) over four slots (9 am, 11:30 am, 2 pm, 4:30 pm).
 
SBI has announced over 2200 vacancies for the posts of Probationary Officer for the year 2016. The exam pattern for SBI PO Prelims 2016 is pretty much the same as that of SBI PO Prelims 2015. Let us discuss some of the Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016 Shift 1 (9 am slot).

Let us look Section-wise at the Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016 Shift 1

Reading Comprehension (Social Issue based)
Women empowerment – in OECD nations – Women CEOs

Cloze Test (Social Issue Based)
Use of Technology in the Modern World

Para jumble (Finance Based)
Bike Insurance – Policy Holders

Error Spotting (Grammar Based)

Fill in the Blanks (Double Blanks)


NUMERICAL ABILITY Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016 Shift 1

Number series
(1) 4, 3, 4, 7, 15, …?
(2) 7, 5, 7, 17, 63, …?
(3) 11, 14, 19, 28, 43, …?
(4) 50, 961, 89, 154, 280, …?
(5) 26, 144, 590, 1164, …?


REASONING ABILITY Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims 2nd July 2016 Shift 1

Linear Seating Arrangement
8 people sitting in 2 rows. Some face North while some face south. No extra criteria was given.

Puzzle (Ordering & Ranking – Increasing & Decreasing Order)
Example:
a>b also a>c.
e>g & l.
a can’t be highest, g can’t be lowest.

Puzzle (Ordering & Ranking – Stacks)
7 boxes of 7 colours are stacked one above the other.

Puzzle (Scheduling based on Calendar)
Some months have 30 days while others have 31 days.

Puzzle (Double Line Up)
7 people in 3 different departments like different colours

Mathematical Inequalities
Direct Inequalities were asked, not coded

Blood Relations

Directions & Distances
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SSC CGL 2016 Tier-1 Examination Dates Out in August 2016

Recently Staff Selection Commission has released official Notification regarding SSC CGL 2016 Tier-1 Examination Dates. Also announced the New Pattern or Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Exam 2016.



For More Information: Click Here

Officials has been that Tier-1 and Tier-2 Exams would be in Computer based Examination mode in place of OMR based.

Final Date for SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2016 is 27th August 2016.


GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION 2016

REVISED SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

The candidates may please refer to the Para No. 9, 9.1 and 9.2 (related to Scheme of Examination) of the Notice of Combined Graduate

Level Examination, 2016 published on 13.02.2016 on Commission’s website as well as Employment News/Rozgar Samachar.

In accordance with Para No. 9.1 of the Notice, the Commission had reserved the right to make changes in the scheme of examination such as conduct of Tier-I and Tier-II examination in computer based examination mode, treating Tier-I examination as only qualifying etc.

Under the provisions of the Notice as referred above, the Commission has decided to reduce the Number of Questions from 200 to 100 in Tier-I of the above Examination which would continue to carry 200 marks. The duration of the Tier-I examination would be for a period of 75 minutes. It has also been decided to conduct the Tier-I and Tier-II in computer based examination mode in place of OMR based examination mode. Tier-I is scheduled to be held from 27th August, 2016.

Accordingly, the revised scheme of examination is detailed below:-


Tier

Mode of

Scheme of

Marks

Time


examination

Examination



I

Computer based

A. General Intelligence

50 Marks




& Reasoning





25 Questions





B. General Awareness


75 Minutes



50 Marks

(Total)



25 Questions







C.Quantitative Aptitude

50 Marks

For VH and



25 Questions


candidates





suffering from





Cerebral



D.English

50 Marks

Palsy: 100



Comprehension


Minutes



25 Questions






Total -200





Marks *







II

Computer based

Same as published in

Same as

Same as



the

published in the

published in



Notice of Examination

notice of the

the notice of




Examination

the





Examination

* There will be negative marking of 0.50 for each wrong answer in Tier-I. In respect of Tier- II, the negative marking system will remain unchanged.

In addition to above, the Commission has also decided to introduce a Descriptive Paper of English/Hindi as Tier-III. The Question Paper will be bilingual. The candidates will have the option to choose any one medium. The details may be read as under:-


Tier

Mode of
Examination

Scheme of Examination

Marks

Time








III

Pen and Paper

Descriptive Paper in English/Hindi (writing of Essay/Precis/Letter
/Application Writing etc.)

Total marks 100

60 minutes


mode



100







For VH and






candidates






suffering from




Cerebral Palsy:









80 Minutes










IV

Data Entry

Same as published in

Qualifying

Same as


Skill Test

the


published in the


(DEST) /

Notice of Examination


Notice of




Examination


Computer








Proficiency





Test (CPT)





(wherever





applicable)




The final merit will be prepared on overall performance in Tier-I, Tier-II and Tier-III. However, the candidate will need to qualify all the tiers i.e. Tier-I,

Tier-II and Tier-III separately. There will be no sectional cut-off.

Document Verification will also be conducted as per the provisions of the notice of examination.

Under Secretary (P&P-I)

01.07.2016



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IBPS PO V 2015 Prelim Exam Questions and Answers (4th October 2015)

Today is second day of IBPS PO V 2015 Prelim Exam. Below are the questions asked in IBPS PO V 2015 exam held on 4th october 2015. First Slot of the Exam is over now. Overall the level of the 1st Slot of the exam is of Moderate level. In this post we are providing you a detail analysis of the First Slot exam along with expected cutoff.

Detail Analysis of each section of – First Slot

I. English Language (Level – Moderate)

(i) Reading Comprehension – 10 Questions (RC on Australia New Zealand Bank) (Moderate)
Antonym/Synonym – Fabulous, Bumber, DIP
(ii) Cloze Test – 5 Questions  (Based on Education System)
(iii) Fill in the blanks – 5 Questions
(iv) Spotting Error – 5 Questions (Easy)
(v) Parajumbles – 5 Questions (Based on Chinese Economy)

II. Quantitative Aptitude (Level –Moderate)

(i) Number Series – 5 Questions
(ii) Approximation – 5 Questions (Easy)
(iii) Data Interpretation (2 Sets) – 10 Questions  
Note One DI on Line Graph (Easy) 
One Missing DI (% in Arts, Commerce, etc) (Moderate)
(iv) Quadratic Equation – 5 Questions (Easy)
(v) Miscellaneous Questions – 10 Questions
Miscellaneous questions include – Age, Mixture Allegation, Partnership, Profit Loss, Average, Boats & Stream, Compound/Simple Interest, Time & Work, etc.




Direct Link: 
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The Value of √(15612+√154+√225) is


The Value of √(15612+√154+√225) is

  1. 99
  2. 110
  3. 115
  4. 125

Answer: (4) 125

Explanation:-

[15612 + {154 + (225)1/2}1/2]1/2
= {15612  +(154 + 15)1/2}1/2
= {15612 + (169)1/2}1/2
= (15612 + 13)1/2
= (15625)1/2
= 125
Then, the value of [15612 + {154 + (225)1/2}1/2]1/2  is 125.
Hence, the answer is (4) 125.

This Question is Asked in UP Lekhpal 2015
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UP Lekhpal 13th Sep 2015 Questions and Answers Key Full PDF download

The Uttar Pradesh (UP) Lekhpal Exam was held on 13th Sep 2015, Here we provides you UPSSSC Lekhpal 2015 Questions and Answers Key of all Sets with PDF download. UP Lekhpal Answer Key 2015 Download 13th Sept Exam Paper Solution. UPSSSC Chakbandi Lekhpal Exam 2015 Answer Key and Expected Cut Off Marks. Official answer key or previous question papers when searched online, cannot be found. Like all other government exams, they do not provide question papers and answer keys in the official website.

UP Lekhpal Cut off marks


Lekhpal cut off marks2015 (expected)

General – 52 Marks
OBC – 50 Marks
SC – 45 Marks
ST – 40 Marks

UP Lekhpal Answer Key 2015:

Visit the Official website from the link given below.
Search for UP Lekhpal Answer key 2015.
Click on the link (if declared officially)
Select set of question papers.
Download the page for answer sheet.
up rajaswa lekhpal answer key
up rajaswa lekhpal answer key 2015


1: If the circumference of a circle is 18.6 cm more than its diameter, then what is the diameter of the circle ?
  1. 8.68 cm
  2. 8.84 cm
  3. 7.54 cm
  4. 7.84 cm
Explanation: 2πr = 18.6 + (D)
2πr = 18.6 + 2r
2πr - 2r = 18.6
2r (π - 1) = 18.6
2r = 186/10 X 7/15
r = 186/10 X 7/15 X 1/2
=> 1302/300
D = 2 X 1302/300 = 8.68
2: The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 2448 respectively. If the difference of the numbers is 60, then the sum of the numbers is ?
  1. 248
  2. 204
  3. 348
  4. 284
Explanation: Given data: LCM = 2448 , HCF = 12 and
difference of numbers = 60

We know that,
LCM x HCF of two numbers = Multiplication of both numbers

Let a and b are two numbers, Then

a X b = LCF X HCF
a X b = 12 X 2448 = 29376              — eqn. (1)

a – b = 60 ; given in question

as, (a – b)2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab and

as (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
(a + b)2 = (a – b)2 + 4ab
(a + b)2 = 60X60 + 4X29376
(a + b)2 = 121104
(a + b) = (121104)
(a + b) = 348

Sum of two numbers = 348
3: The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio9:5. If a scooter costs Rs. 4200 more than a moped, then the price of the moped is ?

  1. Rs. 5700
  2. Rs. 6300
  3. Rs. 3350
  4. Rs. 5250
Explanation: If price of moped = x, then the price of scooter = x+4200.

Now,

(x+4200) : x = 9 : 5

9x = 5(x +4200)
9x = 5x + 21,000
4x = 21,000
x = 21,000/5 => 5250.
4: The sum of three numbers is 392. If the ratio of first number to second number is 2:3 and the ratio of second number to third number is 5:8, then the third number is ?
  1. 176
  2. 192
  3. 162
  4. 120
Explanation: Let the three numbers are A, B, C. Then,

A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 5:8  = ( 5 x 3/5) : ( 8 x 3/5) = 3 : 24/5

Hence, A:B:C = 2:3:24/5 => 10:15:24

C = 392 x 24/49 => 192
5: The perimeter of a triangular field is 540 meters and the ratio of its sides is 5:12:13. What will be the area of this field ?
  1. 9320 sq.metre
  2. 9450 sq.metre
  3. 9560 sq.metre
  4. 9720 sq.metre
Explanation:
6: The perimeter of a top surface of a rectangular table is 28 m and its area is 48 m^2. What is  the length of the hypotenuse of  the table ?
  1. 12.5 m
  2. 5 m
  3. 10 m
  4. 12 m
Explanation: The perimeter of a top surface of e rectangular table = 28 m

Formula-
The perimeter of the rectangular table = 2 (l + b)

Then, 2(l + b) = 28
l + b = 28/2
l + b = 14        ……………………………………………….. (1)
Area of surface of the rectangular table = 48 m2
Then, lb = 48
l = 48/b

Put the value of l = 48/b in equation (1),

Then, 48/b + b = 14
(48 + b2) /b = 14
48 + b2 = 14b
b2 – 14b + 48 = 0
b2 – 8b – 6b + 48 = 0
b (b – 8) – 6 (b – 8) = 0
(b – 8) (b – 6) = 0
b – 8  = 0  &  b – 6 = 0
b = 8  & b = 6
Then, l = 48/6 = 8

l = 8 cm & b = 6 m

Hypotenuse of the rectangular surface of the table = (82 + 62)1/2
= (64 + 36)1/2
= (100)1/2
= 10 m

Then, the hypotenuse of the table is 10 m.

Hence, the answer is (3) 10 m.
7: The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and its area is 30 cm2. If the length of the largest side of the triangle is 13 cm, then what is the smallest side of the triangle ?
  1. 5 cm
  2. 6 cm
  3. 4 cm
  4. 3 cm
Explanation: The perimeter of a triangle = 30 cm
the area of a triangle = 30 cm2
Then, ab/2 = 30
ab = 30 x 2
ab = 60 cm
a = 60/b

The  a  + b + 13 = 30
a + b = 30 – 13
a + b = 17          ………….. (1)
Put the value of a = 60/b in equation (1),
60/b + b = 17
60 + b2 = 17 b
b2 – 17 b + 60 = 0
b2 – 12b – 5 b+ 60
b (b – 12) – 5 (b – 12) = 0
(b – 12) (b – 5) = 0
b – 12 = 0 & b – 5 = 0
b = 12 and b = 5

Then, the sides of the triangle are 5, 7 and 13.

Then, the smallest side of the triangle is 5.
8: The radius of the wheel is 21 cm. How many rounds will it take to cover the distance of 792 metres ?
  1. 400
  2. 600
  3. 200
  4. 300
Explanation: The radius of a wheel = 21 cm
Then, the circumference of the wheel = (2 x 22 x 21)/7
= 2 x 22 x 3
= 132 cm
The distance covered by wheel in a round = 132 cm

Total distance covered by the wheel = 792 m
1 m = 100 cm
Therefore, 792 m = 792 x 100 = 79200 cm

Then, the number of rounds of the wheel to cover the distance 79200 cm = 79200/132
= 600
9: A man is twice as fast as a woman and a woman is twice as fast as a boy. If all of them i.e, a man, a woman and a boy can finish a work together is 4 days, in how many days will a boy do it alone ?


  1. 28 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 21 days
  4. 14 days
Explanation:
10: In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of acid and water is 2:1. What amount of water must be added to make the ration of acid and water as 1:2 ?
  1. 60 litres
  2. 72 litres
  3. 44 litres
  4. 52 litres
Explanation: The ratio of the acid and water in a mixture = 2: 1
Total quantity of mixture = 60 litres
Then, the of acid in the mixture = 60 x 2/3
= 40 litres

The, quantity of water in the mixture = 60 x 1/3
= 20 litres

If water 60 litres added, then the ratio will be 1:2
Then, the new ratio of acid and water = 40 : (20+40)
= 40 : 80
= 1:2
11: In ΔABC, If ∠A = 90o, a = 25 cm, b = 7 cm, then what is the value of tan B ?
  1. 24/7
  2. 24/25
  3. 7/25
  4. 7/24
Explanation:

C = (252 – 72)1/2
C = (625 – 49)1/2
C = (576)1/2
C = 24 cm

Then, the value of tan B = 7/24
12: If the interest on a sum of money be 1 paisa per rupee per month, what is the rate per cent per annum ?

Ans: b



  1. 10 1/2%
  2. 12%
  3. 10%
  4. 15%
Explanation: Simple Interest = 1 paisa per month
Let the rate of interest be R%.

Simple Interest = Principal x Time x Rate/100

Then, 1/100 = 1 x 1 x R/100 x 12
1 = R/12
R = 12%

Then, the rate percent of per annum is 10%.
13: The standard deviation of a set of 50 observations is 8. If each observation is multiplied by 2, then the value of standard deviation will be ?
  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 2
  4. 4
Explanation: If we multiply all data values included in a data set by a constant k, then the standard deviation is the standard deviation of the original data set TIMES the absolute value of k.
14: For what value of x will the mode of the following data be 27 ?

25, 26, 27, 23, 27, 26, 24, x, 27, 26, 25, 25
  1. 26
  2. 27
  3. 24
  4. 25
Explanation: Mode is the value of a variable which occurs most frequently. It represents most frequent value of a series. Hence in the given set of data values if we want the mode value = 27, then 27 must be the most frequent value. Hence value of x = 27.
15: The sum of mean and median of 1, 6, 8, 3, 2 is ?
  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 6
  4. 7
Explanation: The mean of 1, 6, 8, 3, 2 = (1 + 6 + 8 + 3 + 2)/5
= 20/5 = 4

The median if 1, 6, 8, 3, 2 = 8
Then, the sum of mean and median = 8 + 4 = 12.
16: A man traveled 2/11 of his journey by train, 17/22 by car and walked the remaining 1 kilometer. How far did he go ?
  1. 24 km
  2. 33 km
  3. 27 km
  4. 22 km
Explanation: Let the total distance of the journey be X km.
A man traveled 2/11 of his journey by train,
Then, the journey traveled by the train = (2/11)x

17/22 by car,
Then, the journey traveled by the car = (17/22)x

Total journey traveled by the train and car = X (2/11 + 17/22)
= X(4 + 17)/22
= (21/22)X
Remaining journey = X – 21X/22
= (22X – 21X)/22
= X/22

Then, X/22 = 1
X = 22 km

Then, the total distance of the journey is 22 km.
17: While computing mean of grouped data, we assume the frequencies are ?
  1. centred at the upper limit of the classes
  2. centred at the lower limits of the classes
  3. evenly distributed over all the classes
  4. centres at the class markes of the classes
Explanation:
18: What least fraction must be subtracted from the square root of 930.25 so that the result is a whole number ?
  1. 1/6
  2. 4/3
  3. 2/3
  4. 1/2
Explanation: The square root of 930.25 = 30.5

30.5 = 30 + .5
= 30 + 1/2
If 1/2 subtracted from the number 30 + 1/2, then the remaining number will be whole number is 30.

Then, 30 + 1/2 – 1/2
= 30
30 is a whole number
19: 300 gm of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much sugar should be added to make it 50% in the solution ?
  1. 60 gm
  2. 25 gm
  3. 45 gm
  4. 40 gm
Explanation: Let the quantity of sugar should be added = X gm
Total quantity of the solution = 300 gm
40% sugar,
Then, the quantity of sugar in the solution = 300 x 40/100
= 120 gm

Therefore, the quantity of water in the solution = 300 – 120
= 180 gm

Then, 180 + 120 + X = (300 + X)/2 + 180
120 + X = (300 + X)/2
By cross multiplication,
2 x 120 + 2 x X = 300 + X
240 + 2 X = 300 + X
2 X – X = 300 – 240
X = 60 gm

Short Trick –
(300 + X)/2 = 180
300 + X = 180 x 2
300 + X = 360
X = 360 – 300
X = 60 gm
20: The difference between a number obtained by increasing a certain number by 8% and than obtained by diminishing it by 3% is 407. The original number is ?
  1. 3700
  2. 3400
  3. 3500
  4. 3600
Explanation: Let the original number be X

According to the question,
108 X/100 – 97 X/100 = 407
(108 X – 97 X)/100 = 407
11 X/100 = 407
11 X = 407 x 100
X = 407 x 100/11
X = 37 x 100
X = 3700

Then, the original number is 3700.
21: Which fraction should be added to the sum of 5 3/4, 4 4/5 and 7 3/8 to make the result a whole number ?
  1. 1/40
  2. 3/40
  3. 1/10
  4. 1/20
Explanation: The sum of 23/4, 24/5 and 59/8 = 23/4 + 24/5 + 59/8
= (23 x 10 + 24 x 8 + 59 x 5)/40
= (230 + 192 + 295)/40
= 717/40 = 17 + 37/40
Let the added X to make whole number.
Then, 37/40 + X = 1
(37 + 40X )/40 = 1
37 + 40 X = 40
40X = 40 – 37
X = 3/40
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IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) Morning Shift Questions and Answers (5th Sept 2015)

We are sharing Questions and Answers Asked in IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) Exam held on 5th September 2015 Saturday Morning Shift. These General Knowledge questions are send us by our users who have attended IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) in morning shift.

IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I September 5 2015 morning shift
  • World Vegetarian Day is observed annually on______ ?  October 1st
  • Who is current chief minister of Jharkhand state of India?    Raghubar Das
  • Punjab National Bank is an Indian financial services company based in which city? New Delhi
  • Headquarters of The International Atomic Energy Agency’s located in which place? Vienna, Austria
  • Who was appointed as President of the New Development Bank (NDB)? V. Kamath
  • What is the currency of Egypt? Egyptian pound
  • Which private insurer launched ‘Smart Humsafar’, a unique plan, which offers multiple benefits of savings and insurance cover for husband and wife under a single policy? SBI Life Insurance
  • Who is the awardee of Ramanujan Prize-2015? Amalendu Krishna
  • What is the National capital city of Thailand? Bangkok
  • Who is the author of the book “Ghosts of Calcutta” ? Sebastian Ortiz
  • Which state is India’s largest state by area (342,239 square kilometers (132,139 sq mi) or 10.4% of India’s total area)? Rajasthan
  • Which is the first Asian country to become an Associate Member State of CERN as India’s request for membership is still pending? Pakistan
  • What is the Currency of Bhutan? Bhutanese ngultrum
  • Which bank launched “Dhanchayat,” an educational film, to raise awareness on the dangers of borrowing money from unorganized sources? HDFC Bank
  • What does stand for “S” in RTGS? Settlement
  • What is the purpose of establishing Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation? To  provide insurance of deposits and guaranteeing of credit facilities.
  • KVP is a fixed-income, long-term and risk-free government-run product. The minimum investment amount required to start with is Rs.1,000. What is the maximum limit? No maximum limit
  • where does La Tomatina take place? Bunol, Valencia, Spain
  • What is the Capital of Egypt? Cairo
  • What is the Currency of Thailand? Thai Baht
  • Who is the brand ambassador of Renault? Ranbir Kapoor
  • Who is the chief minister of Jharkhand ? Raghubar Das
  • The Kisan Vikas Patra certificates would be available in the denominations of ____? It is Available in denominations of Rs 1,000, 5000, 10,000 and Rs 50,000.
  • which sport does PV Sindhu relates to? Badminton
  • DICGC, Act is related to which sector? Banking
  • Which Bank Launched the  ‘Dhanchayat’ video? HDFC bank
  • World information technology summit 2018 is going to be held in ____? Hyderabad
  • What is the percentage of RRB sponsor bank contribution? 35%
  • What is percentage of China contribution to NDB? 41%
  • The 16th FINA(Fédération Internationale de Natation) World Championships also Aquatics 2015, are held in Kazan in which country? Russia
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IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) Questions and Answers - Asked in 5th September 2015 Evening Shift

IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) Evening Shift Questions and Answers asked in Exam held on 5th September 2015 Saturday. These Questions are send by our users who have attended IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) Exam. These Questions are recommended also for upcoming Banking Exams. Also, Please share your exam experience in comment box below.


IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I September 5 2015 Evening shift
  • Manas National Park is located in which state? Assam
  • What is India’s rating in latest world football’s FIFA ranking? 155th rank
  • Headquarters of  International Labour Organization(ILO) located in which city? Geneva
  • Gaddafi stadium is located in ______ ? Lahore
  • What is the maximum amount of pension available under Atal Pension Yojana?Rs. 5000
  • International Non violence day is observed on _____? October 2nd
  • What is the currency of Bhutan? Ngultrum
  • Which sport does Ricky ponting belongs to? Cricket
  • In which the Simhadri Super Thermal Power Plant  located? Andhra Pradesh
  • Seventh BRICS summit was held in ____? Ufa,Russia
  • Which two seas are connected by the suez canal?Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea
  • Who is the president of Philippines? Benigno Simeon Cojuangco Aquino III
  • Which is the ‘Most expensive city in India’? Mumbai
  • In which state Gugamal National Park is located? Maharashtra
  • Which is the longest river in Asia? Yangtze River
  • Who is the Union Minister of Rural Development, Panchayati Raj, Sanitation and Drinking Water? Chaudhary Birender Singh
  • Who presented the Raman Magsaysay award to sanjay chaturvedi?Benigno Simeon Cojuangco Aquino III,Philippines president
  • What is the amount likely going to be paid  by each of the countries  India, Russia and Brazil as a capital to New Development Bank?  $18 billion
  • The 16th FINA(Fédération Internationale de Natation) World Championships also Aquatics 2015, are held in Kazan in which country? Russia

Some More Questions Asked in IBPS RRB Officer Scale-1 PO Exam

GK QUESTIONS ASKED IN IBPS RRB 2015 OFFICER SCALE - 1 ( 5th September 2015 EVENING SHIFT)
1. Ngultrum currency - Bhutan
2. ILO Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland
3. PMSBY MAX AGE - 70 Years
4. Atal Pension Yojana max pension - 5000/-
5. NABARD Regulator - RRB & Cooperative Banks
6. New Development Bank South Africa contributions - $5bn
7. Rural Minister - CB Singh
8. Athithi devo Bhava Feature Star - Aamir khan
9. Private Sector Banks Capital - 500 cr
10. Most Indian Expensive City - Mumbai
11. Swachh Bharat Cleaned Top Capital City - Bengaluru
12. Mahabalipuram is in - Tamilnadu
13. Sanjay Chaturvedi recently Recieved Award - Ramon Magsasay
14. Special Drawing Rights Maintained By - IMF
15. IN DICGC - G Stands For Guarantee
16. Non Violence Day - OCT 2
17. Frisbee’s related to Game - Flying Disc
18. Ricky Pointing Player of Which Team - Australia
19. Abdul Kalam University replaced which University - Uttar Pradesh Technical University
20. Capital Infusion of 70,000 I'm Public Sector Banks for How many years - Four Years
21. Dengue Care Product launches by which Insurance Company - Apolo Munich Health Insurance
22. First Mutual fund in India - Unit Trust India
23. Gaddafi Stadium - Lahore, Pakistan
24. World Population Prospects Released by - UNO
25. Simhadri Thermal Power Plant - Andhra Pradesh
26. 16th FINA Acquatic World Championship by - Kazan, Russia
27. Kallada Lake in the District of Kollam is in State /UT of - Kerala
28. India Cuts Export wheat Production price percent - 20%
29. National Investment Infrastructure Fund FDI restricted to - 49%
30. National Academy of Direct Taxes is in - Nagpur, Maharashtra
31. Dibrugarh is In Assam on Bank river of - Brahmaputra
32. General Motors invest $1bn by 2020 in - Pune, Maharashtra
33. Niligiri Hills in Western Ghats of Tamilnadu between - Karnataka & Kerala
34. Suez Canal Connect Sea - Mediterranean Sea & Red Sea
35. Sunita Solomon Recently passed away in Chennai Researchers of - HIV / AIDS
36. Article 370 related to - Autonomous Status of Jammu & Kashmir
37. First Brics Business Forum Summit Going to be Held on September 9 - Dubai
38. Gugamal National Park is in - Maharashtra
39. World Second largest manufacturer of currency -

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UPSC IAS CS Prelims 2015 General studieas Question Paper with Answer PDF

The UPSC IAS Civil Services Preliminary Exam as conducted by Union Public Service Commission on 23 August 2015. This question paper contains 100 multiple choice questions with the negative marking of one by three.

The UPSC IAS Prelims General Studies Question Paper is one of the toughest Question Paper to solve in the time frame of two hours. We have meticulously searched, compared and answered these questions.

The UPSC IAS Prelims General Studies Question Paper of 2015 is as follows:

The Question Paper is coming soon as it will be finished at the examination centers.

IAS Prelims 2015 General Studies Question Paper,  Civil Services Prelims Question Paper,  UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2015,  IAS Prelims 2015 GS Question Paper,  IAS Prelims 2015 Question Paper

Download UPSC IAS 2015 Answer Key Here
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UPSC Civil Services Answer Key Cut off Marks 2015 - 23rd August Exam Question Paper

UPSC Civil Services Cut off Marks 2015 2014 2013 2012, UPSC CSAT Cut off Scores

Every year, UPSC Conducts Civil Services Exam for the recruitment of Staff. Lakhs of candidates prepares for this exam but very few of them are able to qualify it. It is very important for a candidate who want to qualify UPSC Civil Services exam that he/she should know what is the cut off score to clear the exam. So to help those candidates, here is a collection of UPSC Civil Services Cut off marks of Last years including 2015 (expected), 2014, 2013, 2012.

You will find here the following answer key
UPSC IAS 23 Aug 2015 answer key
UPSC CSP 2015 answer key
UPSC civil services answer key
UPSC CSAT Answer key 2015
UPSC Answer key 2015 for Civil Services Pre exam

UPSC Civil Services Cut off marks 2015 2014 2012 2011

For those candidates who want to qualify UPSC Civil Services exam should know what are the cut off scores they have to clear. Those candidates who are preparing, should know what will be the minimum scores they have to get in UPSC Civil Services exam to qualify the exam.
Here we are posting the official cut off marks of UPSC CSAT 2014, 2013, 2012 and 2015 Preliminary (expected). This will let you get an idea what marks you have to target.

UPSC Civil Services Pre 2015 Cut off marks (expected)

General - 209
OBC - 208
SC - 185
ST - 177

Official cut off marks will be posted here after release.
The above cut off marks carries a variation of +-5 marks and just to give an idea.
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UPSC IAS CS Prelims 23rd August 2015 - New Test Centres address notification

The UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) will be conducting the IAS CS and IFC Preliminary examination on 23 August 2015. There has been a some change in  the allotted examination centres.

New Test Centres

Imphal center candidates, whose roll numbers fall within 0681544 and 0782031, need to note that their venue has been shifted to MODERN COLLEGE, POROMPAT, IMPHAL EAST - 795001.

Candidates whose roll numbers fall within 0178701 to 0184500, need to note that their venue has been shifted to DR. SAMPURNANAND SARVODAYA KANYA VIDYALAYA NO.1, C-BLOCK, YAMUNA VIHAR, (NEAR TELEPHONE EXCHANGE, YAMUNA VIHAR, C-10 BLOCK), DELHI - 110053.

Revised e-admit cards for these candidates have already been uploaded at the commission website.
Candidates whose roll numbers fall within 0439172 and 0441692, need to note that their venue has been shifted to GOVT. GIRLS SR. SECONDARY SCHOOL, B BLOCK, ANANDVAS, NEAR S.B.I., D-BLOCK, SHAKURPUR, DELHI - 110034.

Candidates whose roll numbers fall within 0025511 to 0027025 need to note that their venue is RAJKIYA PRATIBHA VIKAS VIDYALAYA, C-BLOCK, LAJPAT NAGAR 1, NEW DELHI 110024.

The admit cards for the UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) IAS preliminary examination 2015 are available at the official website of UPSC. The candidates who have registered themselves for this exam can download the same, today onward till August 23.

It is mandatory for the candidates to bring their admit cards along with them to appear in their respective exam centres. All the important details like examination centers, roll number, date & timing of examination are mentioned in the admit card.

UPSC conducts several written examinations as well as interviews for selecting eligible and talented candidates for various posts. Every year, a large number of candidates register themselves for the exam.

How to download the admit card

The registered candidates are required to log on to the official website www.upsc.gov.in.

They should then click on the 'e-Admit Card-Civil Service Examination, 2015 link.

Fill in the required information and click on submit.

Save or take the print out of the displayed admit card.

Important dates

Date of the examination is August 23

The results will be announced on the last week of October
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SSC CGL Answer Key 16th August 2014 Morning and Evening Slot Questions

SSC CGL Answer Key 0f 16th August 2015 Morning and Evening shift exams in PDF format. Second Paper of SSC CGL Answer key free download with all questions and answers.

SSC CGL Answer Key Tier 1 Second paper 2015

SSC is going to conduct an Written Test which will be held in 9 August 2015 and 16 august 2015. Candidates are waiting for their Answer Keys, and solved ques papers for evening and morning shift will be shortly available on website after the Exam. Exam will be held in Morning & Evening Session. SSC took exam on various sets so that there will be Transparency in exam. Answer Key will be Shortly available after the Exam.

Exam Date: 16-08-2015

The Staff Selection Commission will soon upload to download All set of Paper Solution for SSC CGL Exam 2015 on the same official site at ssc.nic.in so all the related candidates can download it from the same website very soon, whenever it will be uploaded by Staff Selection Commission Department. As we all know after the exam applicants are eagerly waiting for their Answer Sheet of SSC CGL Tier 1 2015.So Check here the Answer Key of SSC CGL Tier 1 2015.

Western region (http://www.sscwr.net)
Southern region (http://www.sscsr.gov.in)
Northern region (http://sscnr.net.in)
North-Eastern (http://sscner.org.in/)
Karnataka-Kerala region (http://www.ssckkr.kar.nic.in)
Central Region (CR) (http://ssc-cr.org)
Madhya Pradesh Region (http://www.sscmpr.org)
North-west Region (http://www.sscnwr.org)
Eastern Region (http://117.247.65.7)
All Regions: www.ssconline.nic.in and www.ssc.nic.in.


How to Download SSC CGL Tier 1 Answer Key :

SSC has now changed the Pattern for display of Answer Key on its website. Previously SSC upload Answer Key in pdf format which can be easily Downloaded by the candidates.

But Now SSC has change this Pattern which is as follow:

Visit the link www.ssc.nic.in your mobile or desktop browser

SSC upload Answer Key on the website, which can be easily obtain by using candidate’s credentials.
So Candidates can check answer key from the one’s Test Form no.
Candidates have to submit session, Test Form No to Download Answer Key.
SSC upload Answer Key for fix duration of time so candidates should take care of this thing.
Save the Answer Key in pdf Format & take a print out if you need it in future.
We will also try to provide you the direct link of the Answer Key. So keep in touch with us.

Click Here to get Answer Key of Morning Exam

SSC CGL 2015 Answer Key
 
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Evening Exam - SSC CGL 9th August 2015 Questions and Answer

Evening Shift Exam - SSC CGL 9th August 2015 Questions and Answer

1: Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives

  1. (108,36)
  2. (42,14)
  3. (69,23)
  4. (56,19)

Explanation:

2: Find the odd letter

  1. R N J F
  2. T P L I
  3. S O K J
  4. Y U Q M

Explanation:

3: Find the odd letter

  1. EYES
  2. NOSE
  3. EARS
  4. VESTIBULAR

Explanation:

4: Find the odd number in series

32, 13, 51, 24, 46, 20, 72, 45

  1. 46
  2. 13
  3. 72
  4. 20

Explanation:

5:  which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

6:  which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

7: Liberalism stands for ?

  1. freedom in social, political and economic aspects
  2. religious orthodoxy
  3. self - emancipation
  4. a movement & an attitude

Explanation:

8: Cyanide poisoning causes death in seconds because ?

  1. It breaks the electron transport chain
  2. It causes cradic arrest
  3. It denatures enzymes of the heart
  4. It causes Lysis of red blood cells

Explanation:

9: Who is considered founder of the Gupta Empire ?

  1. Chandra Gupta I
  2. Srigupta
  3. Chandra Gupta II
  4. Samudra Gupta

Explanation:

10: The Battle of Plassey was fought in year ?


  1. 1757
  2. 1576
  3. 1761
  4. 1775

Explanation:

11: For a missile launched with a velocity less than the earth's escape velocity, the total energy is ?

  1. Positive
  2. Zero
  3. either positive or negative
  4. Negative

Explanation:

12: Mahatma Gandhi began his political activities in India ftrst from ?

  1. Dandi
  2. Sabarmati
  3. Kheda
  4. Champaran

Explanation:

13: When a helium atom loses an electron it becomes ?

  1. A proton
  2. A negative helium ion
  3. An alpha particle
  4. A positive helium ion

Explanation:

14: Who discovered the first antibiotic ?

  1. Louis Pastour
  2. C Waksman
  3. W Fleming
  4. A Fleming

Explanation:

15: A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by it's row and next by it's columns, e.g 'A' canbe represented by 01,14 etc and E can be represented by 55,66 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word "ORGAN"

MATRIX - I



0 1 2 3 4
0 P A G R Z
1 G R Z P A
2 Z P A G R
3 A G R Z P
4 R Z P A G


MATRIX- II



5 6 7 8 9
5 E M L N O
6 L E O M N
7 O N E L M
8 N O M E L
9 M L N O E

  1. 98, 03, 44, 22, 58
  2. 67, 22, 31, 58, 22
  3. 75, 03, 11, 22, 76
  4. 86, 40, 23, 14, 96

Explanation:

16: select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
9:50 :: ?

  1. 15:225
  2. 18:190
  3. 22:110
  4. 20:105

Explanation:

17: What is the fascist view of state?

  1. Nation state is unquestionably sovereign
  2. State is under the control of king
  3. State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of few
  4. State enhances the ideal of individualism

Explanation:

18: Earthquakes are caused by ?

  1. Earth rotation
  2. Denudation
  3. Teetonism
  4. Earth revolution

Explanation:

19: When is International 'Yoga Divas' is celebrated ?


  1. 21 July
  2. 21st May
  3. 25th April
  4. 21st June

Explanation:

20: Heavy metals got their name because compared to order atoms they have ?


  1. Higher atomic radii
  2. Higher densities
  3. Higher atomic numbers
  4. Higher atomic masses

Explanation:

21: In the grass lands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of ?


  1. Limited sun light and paucity of nutrients
  2. Water limits and fire
  3. None of the options
  4. Insect and fungi

Explanation:

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Questions Asked in SSC CGL Tier 1 9th August Exam Morning Shift with Answer

Questions Asked in SSC CGL Tier 1 9th August Exam Morning Shift with Answer, SSC CGL 9th august 2015 questions and answer pdf download

1: Identify the diagram  that best represents the relationship among the classes given below:

Animals, land animals, sea animals


  1. A
  2. b
  3. c
  4. D

Explanation:

2: Seven persons A,B,C,D,E,F and G are standing in a straight line.
D is to the right of G
C is between A and B
E is between F and D
There are three persons between G and B.
Who is on the extreme left ?

  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. G

Explanation:

3: D X H : 4 X 8 as M X Q :  ?

  1. 12 X 16
  2. 12 X 17
  3. 13 X 17
  4. 14 X 18

Explanation:

4: Haematology : Blood :: Phycology : ?

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Fishes
  4. Diseases

Explanation:

5: MAN : PDQ :: WAN : ?

  1. YDQ
  2. ZDQ
  3. YQD
  4. NAW

Explanation:

6: AEFJ : KOPT :: ? : QUVZ

  1. HKQL
  2. GLKP
  3. HLKP
  4. GKLP

Explanation:

7: 2 : 32 :: 3 : ?

  1. 183
  2. 143
  3. 243
  4. 293

Explanation:

8: Pride of Lions ::______ of cats

  1. Bunches
  2. Herd
  3. Clowder
  4. School

Explanation:

9: Which one of the given responses would be meaningful order of the following ?

1. Elephant
2. Cat
3. Mosquito
4. Tiger

  1. 5,3,1,2,4
  2. 3,2,4,1,5
  3. 2,5,1,4,3
  4. 1,3,5,4,2

Explanation:

10: Find the odd word

  1. Evening
  2. Night
  3. Morning
  4. Noon

Explanation:

11: Find the odd letter pair

  1. IHKL
  2. CBEF
  3. GFHJ
  4. EDGH

Explanation:

12: Find the odd word

  1. Equality
  2. Liberty
  3. Society
  4. Fraternity

Explanation:

13: Find the odd number

  1. 6023
  2. 4025
  3. 7202
  4. 5061

Explanation:

14: Find the odd number pair


  1. 104:78
  2. 64:48
  3. 80:60
  4. 96:80

Explanation:

15: Find the odd letters pair

  1. KQNN
  2. HSKP
  3. DWFU
  4. EVHS

Explanation:

16:  a _ _ dba _ _ bcad _ _ da _ _ cd

  1. bccdbcab
  2. cbcddcba
  3. aabbccdd
  4. abcddcba

Explanation:

17: ccbab _ caa _ bccc _ a _


  1. bbba
  2. babb
  3. baab
  4. babc

Explanation:

18:

In the fig:

Q represents all quadrilaterals
K represents all Kites
R represents all Rhombus
P represents all Parallelogram

The statement Rhombus is also a kite can be described as ?

  1. P and K is nothing but R
  2. P and K is nothing but R
  3. P or R is nothing but K
  4. P and R is nothing but K

Explanation:

19: A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.


  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

20: From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. "CUMBERSOME"

  1. MERCY
  2. MOUSE
  3. ROME
  4. SOBER

Explanation:

21: If, + stands for division; x stands for addition; - stands for multiplication; ÷ stands for subtraction, which of the following is correct ?

46 x 6 ÷ 4 - 5 + 3 = 74
46 - 6 + 4 x 5 ÷ 3 = 71
46 ÷ 6 x 4 - 5 + 3 = 75.5
46 x 6 - 4 + 5 ÷ 3 = 70.1

  1. d
  2. c
  3. b
  4. a

Explanation:

22: Select the missing number from the given responses.

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 12
  4. 16

Explanation:

23: Select the missing number from the given responses.

  1. 1
  2. 30
  3. 0
  4. 11

Explanation:

24: Select the missing number from the given responses.

7    5    3
8    4    9
2    8    ?
112  160  162

  1. 8
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 12

Explanation:

25: Select the missing number from the given responses.

  1. 1097
  2. 907
  3. 97
  4. 9170

Explanation:

26: Select the missing number from the given responses.

9   11  13
13  15  17
10  12  14
14  16  18
11  13  ?

  1. 14
  2. 21
  3. 15
  4. 22

Explanation:

27: 4, 6, 10, 16, 24, ?

  1. 34
  2. 30
  3. 28
  4. 40

Explanation:

28: 3, 5, 9, 17, ?

  1. 65
  2. 42
  3. 26
  4. 33

Explanation:

29: In a certain code 253 means books are old, 546 means man is old and 378 means buy good books. Which stands for "are" in that code ?

  1. 6
  2. 5
  3. 4
  4. 2

Explanation:

30: Statement: Every school should promote partnerships that will increase parental involvement and participation for promoting the growth of children

Conclusion I: For the growth of children parents should be involved in various school activities

II. Involvement of parents in school activities has no influence on the growth of the children

  1. Only II follows
  2. Both I and II follow
  3. Neither I nor II follows
  4. Only I follows

Explanation:

31: Statement: Aggressive animals can be trained with care and affection to behave as the occasions demand

Conclusions I: Trained dogs cannot be aggressive.

II. Animals are always aggressive unless care and affection is given to them.

  1. Only II follows
  2. Both I and II follow
  3. Neither I nor II follows
  4. Both I and II follows

Explanation:

32: A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g, A can be represented ny 01, 14 etc. and O can be represented by 59, 67 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word "PEARL"

MATRIX - I


0 1 2 3 4
0 P A G R Z
1 G R Z P A
2 Z P A G R
3 A G R Z P
4 R Z P A G


MATRIX- II



5 6 7 8 9
5 E M L N O
6 L E O M N
7 O N E L M
8 N O M E L
9 M L N O E

  1. 00, 66, 14, 32, 50
  2. 12, 88, 43, 32, 89
  3. 00, 55, 22, 11, 96
  4. 13, 77, 30, 14, 88

Explanation:

33: Name the single letter, which can be prefixed to the following words in order to obtain entirely new words ?

TILL, TABLE, PILE, TAB, PRING

  1. H
  2. C
  3. S
  4. B

Explanation:

34: In a certain code "MOUSE" is written as "PRUQC". How is "SHIFT" written in that code ?

  1. VIKRD
  2. VJLDR
  3. RKIVD
  4. VKIDR

Explanation:

35: Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?


  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

36: which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

37: Which number indicate doctor who are not married ?

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 6
  4. 1

Explanation:

38: Pinky walks a distance of 600 mtr. towards east, turns left and moves 500 mtr, then turns left and walks 600 mtr and then turns left again and moves 500 mtr and halts. At what distance in meters is she from the starting point ?

  1. 0
  2. 600
  3. 2200
  4. 500

Explanation:

39: Using the following code and key decode the given coded word :

Code : L  X  P  Z  J  Y  Q  M  N  B
Key:   b  a  e  s  p  r  h  i  g  t

Coded word : ZBYXMNQB

  1. height
  2. straight
  3. struggle
  4. strength

Explanation:

40: If the mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

41: If + => x , - => ÷ , x => +, ÷ => -, then which of the following correct equation out of the following ?

  1. 18 + 6 - 4 x 2 ÷ 3 = 36
  2. 18 x 6 - 4 + 7 x 8 = 47
  3. 18 - 6 x 7 ÷ 2 + 8 = 63
  4. 18 ÷ 6 + 4 - 2 ÷ 3 = 22

Explanation:

42: The figure given on the left hand side is folded to form a box. Choose from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) the boxes that is similar to the box formes.

  1. (1), (3) and (4) only
  2. (1) and (4) only
  3. (2) and (3) only
  4. (2) and (4) only

Explanation:

43: From the given answer figures, select the one which is hidden/embedded in the question figure:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Explanation:

44: Unscramble the following letters to frame a meaningful word. Then find out the correct numerical position of the letters:

B  C  U  S  M  E  L  R  N  A
1  2  3  4  5  6  7  8  9  10

  1. 3 9 4 2 8 10 5 1 7 6
  2. 6 1 4 3 2 5 8 7 9 10
  3. 3 1 5 7 10 4 2 6 9 8
  4. 2 1 3 4 6 8 9 7 5 10

Explanation:

45: Sunita rode her scooty northwards, then turned left and then again rode to her left 4 km. She found herself exactly 2 kms went of her starting point. How far did she ride northwards initially ?

  1. 4 km
  2. 5 km
  3. 6 km
  4. 2 km

Explanation:

46: How many triangles are there in the figure ?

  1. 28
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. 24

Explanation:

47: Find out the number of circles in the given figure:

  1. 14
  2. 18
  3. 17
  4. 16

Explanation:

48: Choose the correct alternative to complete the series:
Lily, Daisy, Datura, ______

  1. Marigold
  2. Jasmine
  3. Hibiscus
  4. Sun

Explanation:

49: In a row of men, Manoj is 30th from the right and Kiran  is 20th from the left. When they interchange their position, Manoj becomes 35th from the right. What is the total number of men in the row ?

  1. 54
  2. 44
  3. 45
  4. 34

Explanation:

50: A train starts from station A and reaches B 15 minutes late when it moves with 40 km/hr and 24 minutes late when it goes 30 km/hr. The distance between the two stations is ?


  1. 18 km
  2. 16 km
  3. 21 km
  4. 24 km

Explanation:

51: Sink hole is a phenomenon of ______ topography ?

  1. Plain
  2. Karst
  3. Desert
  4. Tundra

Explanation:

52: Who was the founder of Lodhi Dynasty ?

  1. Bahlol Lodhi
  2. Ibrahim Lodhi
  3. Sikandar Lodhi
  4. Daulat Khan Lodhi

Explanation:

53: X-rays can be used ?

  1. to detect heart diseases
  2. to detect defects in precious stones and diamonds
  3. for cutting and welding of metals
  4. to detect gold under the earth

Explanation:

54: Kerala is famous for the cultivation of ?

1. Coconut
2. Black-pepper
3. Rubber
4. Rice

  1. 1,2 and 4
  2. 2,3 and 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

55: It is easy to burst a gas-filled balloon with a needle than with a nail. It is because ?

  1. needle exerts more pressure than nail on the balloon
  2. nail is more longer than needle
  3. gas is reactive with the needle
  4. nail exerts more pressure than needle on the balloon

Explanation:

56: The legislature gains a priority over the executive in ?

  1. A presidential Government
  2. A parliamentary Government
  3. A Federal Government
  4. An Authoritarian Government

Explanation:

57: Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched ?

  1. Vikramaditya - Chaitanya
  2. Chanakya - Chandragupta
  3. Harshvardhan - Hiuen Tsang
  4. Akbar - Todarmal

Explanation:

58: The birthday of which of the following leaders is celebrated as Teachers Day in India ?

  1. Dr. C. Rajgopalachari
  2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  3. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
  4. Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation:

59: Animals protein is called first class protein because it is ?

  1. rich in essential amino acids
  2. cheaper in the market
  3. easily digestible
  4. delicious in taste

Explanation:

60: To whom  the line A thing of beauty is a joy for ever is attributed ?

  1. John Keats
  2. Charles Dickens
  3. William Wordsworth
  4. Jonathan Swift

Explanation:

61: The ship building yard - Mazgaon Dock is located at ?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Kolkata
  3. Vishakhapatnam
  4. Kochi

Explanation:

62: Jallianwala a incident took place at ?

  1. Lucknow
  2. Amritsar
  3. Surat
  4. Allahabad

Explanation:

63: Photoperiodism affects ?

  1. All of these
  2. Vegetative growth
  3. Fruiting
  4. Flowering

Explanation:

64: The Panchayat Samiti remains accountable for its function to ?

  1. The Gram Panchayats and Gram Sabhas
  2. Anchal Panchayats
  3. Zilla Parishads
  4. Janpad Panchayats

Explanation:

65: Which one of the following animals belongs to mollusca ?

  1. Hare
  2. Hyla
  3. Hydra
  4. Haliotis

Explanation:

66: Gross National product - Depreciation Allowance = ?

  1. Gross Domestic Product
  2. Personal Income
  3. Per Capita Income
  4. Net National Product

Explanation:

67: The award given for outstanding performance in sports is ?

  1. Padam Shri Award
  2. Arjuna Award
  3. Bharat Ratna
  4. Dronacharya Award

Explanation:

68: If the president wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the ?

  1. Chief justice of India
  2. Vice president
  3. Prime minister
  4. None of these

Explanation:

69: Most commonly used bleaching agent is ?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Alcohol
  4. Chlorine

Explanation:

70: The south - east trade winds are attracted towards the Indian sub-continent in the rainy season due to ?

  1. the effect of Northern-East trade winds
  2. the effect of easterlies
  3. the development of cyclone over the equator
  4. the presence of low atmospheric pressure over North West India

Explanation:

71: Outside the nucleus DNA is found in ?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Endoplasmin reticulum
  3. Golgi bodies
  4. Ribosome

Explanation:

72: The term brown air is used for ?

  1. Photochemical smog
  2. Sulfurous smog
  3. Acid fumes
  4. Industrial Smog

Explanation:

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RBI Assistant 9th august 2015 Exam Answer Key Solved Questions Asked in Morning Shift

RBI Assistant 9th august 2015 Exam Answer Key Solved Questions Asked in Morning Shift

1.world literacy day? 8 sept
2.solo varia currency? Euro
3.Green signal: written by? Vevek agnihitri
4.hriday scheme launched by rajnath rings in which state? Amritsar Punjab
5.palm c28 launched to which country?
6.Buddha in traffic gam director?
7.KILIMINJARO WHERE? Africas highest peak
8.PIPAVA WHERE? Mumbai maharastra
9.KOHIMA CAPITAL OF? Nagaland
10.COMMUNICATION MINISTER? Ravi shankar prasad
11.JOSHNA CHINPA RELATED TO ? Squash player
12.NEXT WORLD CUP? 2019 england
13.WORLD TRADE ORGANISATION HEAD QUARTER? Ganeva
14.OECD HQ? Paris
15.Age limit atal pension yojana…ans-40
16.azlan shah cup related to? hockey
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